Bar Council Full Model Test 39 English | 100 Marks 60 Min

5 days ago

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⚖️ Bangladesh Bar Council Advocate Enrollment Full Model Test – 39

This full-length mock exam is strictly formatted according to the official Bangladesh Bar Council Advocate Enrollment Preliminary Examination guidelines. Featuring 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with a 60-minute countdown timer, +1.00 mark for correct answers, and 0.25 negative marks deduction per incorrect response.

No.	Statutory Subject	Questions	Marks
1	The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC)	20 Qs	20
2	The Specific Relief Act, 1877 (SR Act)	10 Qs	10
3	The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (CrPC)	20 Qs	20
4	The Penal Code, 1860 (Act No. XLV of 1860)	20 Qs	20
5	The Evidence Act, 1872 (Act No. I of 1872)	15 Qs	15
6	The Limitation Act, 1908 (Act No. IX of 1908)	10 Qs	10
7	Legal Ethics & Bar Council Rules (P.O. 46 of 1972)	5 Qs	5
Grand Total:		100 Qs	100 Marks

Time limit: 30 minutes. Complete the test within time.

সময় শেষ ধন্যবাদ।

Bar Council Full Model Test 39 (English)

Bangladesh Bar Council Preliminary Full Model Test 39

Total Questions: 100 | Full Marks: 100 | Time: 60 Minutes | Negative Marking: -0.25

Subject-wise Marks Distribution: CPC 20, SR Act 10, CrPC 20, Penal Code 20, Evidence Act 15, Limitation Act 10, Legal Ethics & Bar Council Rules 5.

1 / 100

If a witness is summoned only to produce a document, is it mandatory for them to attend court personally?

A) Yes, always

B) Yes, to be cross-examined

C) No, they can just mail it without informing the court

D) No, they may cause the document to be produced to the Court by someone else

2 / 100

Before discharging an accused under Section 241A, whom must the Magistrate give an opportunity of being heard?

A) Both the prosecution and the accused

B) Only the accused

C) Only the prosecution

D) The investigating officer

3 / 100

When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided

A) under section 19 of Evidence Act

B) under section 21 of Evidence Act

C) under section 20 of Evidence Act.

D) under section 17 of Evidence Act.

4 / 100

L, M, N, P, Q, R form an unlawful assembly to take land. P causes grievous hurt to Y. Presence of Q and R is doubted. L, M, N's liability:

A) Guilty under Section 34 (Since there are less than 5 confirmed members, Sec 149 fails, but Sec 34 common intention might apply).

B) Guilty of unlawful assembly.

C) Not guilty.

D) Guilty under Sec 149.

5 / 100

Section 34 does NOT apply where:

A) 1 (Five persons -> Sec 149), 2 (Independent decisions, no prior meeting of minds), 3 (Presence usually required).

B) 2, 3, 2004

C) 1, 2, 2004

D) 1, 3, 2004

6 / 100

Proceedings before the Bar Council Tribunal are deemed to be what kind of proceedings under the Penal Code?

A) Administrative Proceeding

B) Civil Proceeding

C) Quasi-judicial Proceeding

D) Judicial Proceeding

7 / 100

When an ex parte decree is passed, the defendant can apply to set it aside under Order IX, Rule 13. If the summons was actually served, what must the defendant prove?

A) That the plaintiff lied in court

B) That they were prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing

C) That they did not understand English

D) That the decree is for too much money

8 / 100

Item A: Common intention (Sec 34) means... Item B: In prosecution of common object (Sec 149) means...

A) 1 and 3

B) A-2 (Pre-arranged plan) & B-2 (In order to attain the object). (Key says (c) 2 alone of both items).

C) 1 and 2

D) 3 alone

9 / 100

Under Section 243, if the accused admits guilt and shows no sufficient cause to the contrary, the Magistrate may:

A) Transfer the case

B) Discharge him

C) Order a retrial

D) Convict him accordingly

10 / 100

In a civil trial, if a party has fully closed their evidence, can they recall a witness who has already been examined?

A) Yes, as a matter of absolute right

B) No, unless the Court in its discretion allows it at any stage under Order XVIII, Rule 17

C) No, under no circumstances

D) Yes, but only if the opponent consents

11 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted when the conduct of the applicant or his agents has been such as to:

A) Disentitle him to the assistance of the Court

B) Speed up the trial

C) Prove his case

D) Delay the trial

12 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted to prevent, on the ground of nuisance, an act of which:

A) The neighbors complain

B) It is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance

C) It is reasonably clear it will be a nuisance

D) The police are aware

13 / 100

Which Article of the Bar Council Order 1972 deals with the punishment for professional misconduct?

A) Article 33

B) Article 41

C) Article 27

D) Article 32

14 / 100

An admission of fact made by a party in their pleading is generally:

A) Irrelevant unless proven by witnesses

B) Easily withdrawn at any time without court permission

C) Conclusive proof and binding on them

D) Only considered at the appellate stage

15 / 100

An injunction CANNOT be granted to interfere with the public duties of any department of the:

A) Private companies

B) NGOs

C) Government

D) Foreign businesses

16 / 100

Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in

A) section 20 of Evidence Act

B) section 19 of Evidence Act

C) section 17 of Evidence Act

D) section 18 of Evidence Act.

17 / 100

To set aside a dismissal under Order IX, Rule 9, the plaintiff must satisfy the Court that:

A) They have a very strong case

B) The defendant caused the absence

C) The lawyer was changed

D) There was sufficient cause for their non-appearance

18 / 100

If a party fails to produce the original documents at or before the settlement of issues, what is the consequence?

A) The documents are confiscated by the state

B) The opposite party automatically wins

C) The suit is automatically dismissed

D) They shall not be received in evidence on their behalf at the hearing without the leave of the Court

19 / 100

In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third person, the declaration so made by that person shall be an evidence against the party making a reference, by virtue of

A) section 17 of Evidence Act

B) section 20 of Evidence Act

C) section 19 of Evidence Act

D) section 21 of Evidence Act.

20 / 100

During the first hearing, the Court examines the parties under Order X to:

A) Ascertain what matters are exactly in dispute (admissions and denials)

B) Record the cross-examination

C) Assess the court fees

D) Pass a final judgment immediately

21 / 100

If a decree-holder wants to execute a money decree orally immediately after it is passed, where must the judgment-debtor be?

A) In civil prison

B) Anywhere in the country

C) In their home

D) Within the precincts of the Court

22 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 233) The exception to the rule of separate charges for distinct offences are mentioned in sections:

A) 144, 145, 146

B) 234, 235, 236, and 239

C) 300, 302, 304

D) 100, 101, 102

23 / 100

Under Section 21(3)(b), who usually makes an acknowledgment on behalf of a Hindu undivided family?

A) The manager of the family for the time being

B) The family priest

C) The eldest son

D) The mother

24 / 100

What type of issues must a court try first if they go to the root of the case?

A) Preliminary issues of law (e.g., jurisdiction or a bar to the suit created by any law)

B) Issues regarding witness credibility

C) Issues regarding the character of the parties

D) Issues of fact related to damages

25 / 100

Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is contained in

A) section 26 of Evidence Act

B) section 25 of Evidence Act

C) section 27 of Evidence Act.

D) section 24 of Evidence Act

26 / 100

A doctor tells Y he has terminal cancer and weeks to live. Y dies of shock. X is:

A) Guilty of murder.

B) Guilty of negligence.

C) Guilty of culpable homicide.

D) Not guilty, communication made in good faith for Y's benefit (Section 93).

27 / 100

Order XVII, Rule 1 allows the Court to grant adjournments. According to general judicial principles and CPC (English), adjournments should be:

A) Granted only if sufficient cause is shown and recorded in writing

B) Granted whenever any lawyer asks for it

C) Granted as a matter of routine

D) Never granted

28 / 100

Match: A. Instigating an offence, B. Planning theft, C. Unlawful act without intent, D. Liability for another's act.

A) 3, 4, 1, 2

B) A-2 (Abetment), B-3 (No offence), C-4 (Strict liability), D-1 (Vicarious liability).

C) 2, 1, 4, 3

D) 4, 3, 2, 1

29 / 100

In Section 2(7), what two words are paired together to define "good faith"?

A) Honesty and Truth

B) Prompt and Accurate

C) Due care and attention

D) Legal and Righteous

30 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 235) A exposes her child likely to cause death, and the child dies. A may be separately charged with and convicted of:

A) Neither

B) Only exposure

C) Offences under Sections 317 (exposure) and 304 (culpable homicide)

D) Only murder

31 / 100

When a document is admitted in evidence in a suit, the Court shall endorse on it:

A) The number and title of the suit, name of producing party, date, and a statement of it having been so admitted

B) A warning to the opponent

C) The name of the judge and their personal address

D) The summary of the final judgment

32 / 100

Does Section 18 (Fraud) compute time from when the fraud was committed, or from when it was known?

A) When known to the person injuriously affected

B) When the court discovers it

C) When the police report it

D) When committed

33 / 100

Match: A. Mens rea, B. Motive, C. Presumption of innocence, D. Knowledge of unlawful act.

A) A-1 (Not always necessary - strict liability), B-2 (Not a condition precedent), C-4 (Until proved), D-3 (Relevant to impute intention).

B) 2, 1, 3, 4

C) 4, 3, 2, 1

D) 2, 3, 4, 1

34 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted when equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by any other usual mode of proceeding, EXCEPT in case of:

A) Breach of trust

B) Trespass

C) Fraud

D) Negligence

35 / 100

Who generally pays for the expenses (diet money, travel) of a witness summoned to give evidence?

A) The party at whose instance the summons is issued

B) The Court from the fine fund

C) The Government treasury

D) The witness pays for themselves

36 / 100

Under the proviso to Section 244(1), in which case is the Magistrate NOT bound to hear the complainant?

A) When the complainant is a woman

B) When the accused is a public servant

C) When the offence is non-bailable

D) When the complaint has been made by a Court

37 / 100

Which of the following admission is no evidence

A) an admission by a guardian ad litem against a minor

B) an admission by one of the partners of a firm against the firm or other partners

C) Only (a) &(b).

D) an admission by one of the several defendants in a suit against another defendant

38 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted to stay a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit, UNLESS:

A) The plaintiff is poor

B) It's a criminal case

C) Such restraint is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings

D) The defendant consents

39 / 100

Admission can be

A) informal only

B) formal only

C) either formal or informal

D) only formal & not informal.

40 / 100

Does the Limitation Act 1908 provide rules for acquiring ownership by possession?

A) Yes, Part IV does

B) No, that is the Transfer of Property Act

C) Only for moveable property

D) Only for government land

41 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 221) "A is charged with the murder of B." This states that A's act fell within the definition of murder in which Penal Code sections?

A) Sections 299 and 300

B) Sections 420 and 406

C) Sections 143 and 144

D) Sections 379 and 380

42 / 100

Assertion: X killed his brother-in-law to stop him from forcibly abducting X's sister. The right of private defence extends to causing death. Reason: 'Abducting' in Section 100 includes abduction simpliciter.

A) A is true, R is false.

B) Both true, R doesn't explain.

C) A is false, R is true.

D) Both true, R explains A.

43 / 100

Assertion: A 6.5-year-old intentionally murders B. A is not liable. Reason: A child up to 9 years (historically 7) is immune.

A) A is true, R is false.

B) Both true, R doesn't explain.

C) A is false, R is true.

D) Both true, R explains A.

44 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted to prevent a continuing breach in which the applicant has:

A) Lost money

B) Complained

C) Sued

D) Acquiesced

45 / 100

X, voluntarily intoxicated, kills Z. Prosecution cannot prove X formed the intent of a sober man. X is:

A) Death by rash/negligent act.

B) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder (Knowledge is presumed, specific intent is not).

C) Guilty of murder.

D) No offence.

46 / 100

A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of Evidence Act

A) only (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.

B) may relate to the same crime or another crime

C) must relate to the same crime for which he is charged

D) must relate to another crime

47 / 100

Is an "applicant" defined to include the person through whom he derives his right to apply?

A) No

B) Only in trust cases

C) Only in property cases

D) Yes, Sec 2(1)

48 / 100

What is the time limit for the plaintiff to file a written statement in response to a counter-claim filed by the defendant?

A) The same timeline applies as a normal written statement (usually within 30 days)

B) 90 days

C) No written statement is allowed against a counter-claim

D) 7 days

49 / 100

Order XXI, Rule 16 deals with the execution of a decree by a transferee. A decree can be transferred by:

A) Publication in a newspaper

B) Oral agreement

C) Just handing over the certified copy

D) Assignment in writing or by operation of law

50 / 100

A criminal conspiracy consists of:

A) Common intention to achieve unlawful object.

B) An agreement of two or more persons to do an unlawful act or a lawful act by unlawful means.

C) Inducing a minor.

D) Intentional act with connivance.

51 / 100

Which describes 'Mens rea'?

A) Excluded unless statute requires.

B) If the statute is silent, as a general rule it should be read into the statute.

C) Present at planning, not commission.

D) Absolute prohibition not required.

52 / 100

Common intention implies:

A) Common design.

B) Common knowledge.

C) Similar intention.

D) Pre-arranged planning.

53 / 100

Assertion: A person is not guilty of dacoity unless he committed/attempted robbery. Reason: When two persons conjointly commit robbery, it is dacoity.

A) A is false, R is true.

B) A is true, R is false (Dacoity requires 5 persons, not 2).

C) Both true.

D) Both true, no explanation.

54 / 100

Is a cheque considered a bill of exchange under this Act?

A) No

B) Only crossed cheques

C) Only bearer cheques

D) Yes

55 / 100

Section 24 of Evidence Act applies

A) when the inducement, threat or promise comes from a person in authority

B) when the inducement is of a temporal kind

C) when the inducement is spiritual or religious,

D) only (a) & (b) are correct.

56 / 100

"Mesne profits" defined under CPC (English) and dealt with in Order XX, Rule 12 refers to:

A) Profits made by a lawful owner

B) The capital value of the property

C) Future anticipated income of a legal tenant

D) Those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received therefrom, together with interest

57 / 100

If a medical adviser threatens to publish a patient's communications, the Court may order the communications to be:

A) Published anonymously

B) Filed in court

C) Sold

D) Given up or destroyed

58 / 100

Does Section 22(1) apply if a party is added owing to devolution of any interest during the pendency of a suit?

A) Only if it's a death

B) Yes

C) Only if it's bankruptcy

D) No, Section 22(2) explicitly excludes this scenario

59 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 240) If the Court of its own accord stays the trial of remaining charges after a conviction on one charge, it has the effect of:

A) A transfer to another court

B) A permanent delay

C) An acquittal on the stayed charges

D) A conviction on the stayed charges as well

60 / 100

A, intending to kill her husband, serves him what she thinks is poison but is actually sugar. He drinks it.

A) She is liable for attempt to murder as her intention was clear from her acts.

B) Liable for penultimate act.

C) Not liable, he didn't die.

D) Not liable, sugar is not dangerous.

61 / 100

If a party deliberately provides evasive answers or refuses to answer material questions during the Court's oral examination under Order X, the Court may:

A) Send them to civil prison

B) Fine them 1,00,000 Taka

C) Postpone the hearing and, if the party still refuses, pronounce judgment against them

D) Automatically decree the suit

62 / 100

If an appeal period expires on Friday and the court reopens on Sunday, when can the appeal be preferred under Sec 4?

A) Next Friday

B) Thursday

C) Sunday

D) Saturday

63 / 100

Under Section 241A, when shall the Magistrate discharge the accused?

A) If the accused pleads guilty

B) If the complainant is absent

C) If he considers the charge to be groundless

D) If the police recommend it

64 / 100

If the accused admits committing the offence under Section 243, his admission shall be recorded:

A) In the language of the Court

B) In a summary format

C) As nearly as possible in the words used by him

D) By a police officer

65 / 100

What happens if a person claiming an easement under Sec 26 interruptedly enjoys it for 25 years?

A) He gets half the right

B) He gets the right

C) He must pay compensation

D) He does not get the absolute right, as it must be "without interruption"

66 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted to stay proceedings in a Court:

A) Dealing with civil matters

B) Not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought

C) Subordinate to the Court granting it

D) Located in the same city

67 / 100

Which of the following is not given by section 25 of Evidence Act

A) confession made to a member of Railway Protection Force

B) confession made to an officer under FERA

C) all the above.

D) confessions made to custom officers

68 / 100

According to Section 245(1), if the Magistrate finds the accused not guilty after taking evidence, he shall:

A) Issue a warning

B) Order a reinvestigation

C) Fine the complainant

D) Record an order of acquittal

69 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 221) If A is accused of extortion, must the charge reference the definition of extortion in the Penal Code?

A) No, section numbers are optional

B) Yes, the full text must be written

C) Yes, and it must be memorized by the accused

D) No, it may just state he committed extortion, but the section number must be referred to

70 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 223) If A is accused of obstructing B, a public servant, must the charge set out the manner of obstruction?

A) Yes

B) Only if B was injured

C) Only if a weapon was used

D) No

71 / 100

A finds a watch in a bus, keeps it, and sells it the next day.

A) Theft.

B) Criminal misappropriation.

C) Criminal breach of trust.

D) Extortion.

72 / 100

Match: A. Death to safeguard property from fire, B. Death by 6-year-old, C. Death by intentional sufficient bodily injury, D. Death of escaping trespasser.

A) 4, 2, 3, 1

B) A-4 (Private defence), B-3 (No offence), C-2 (Murder), D-1 (Exception 2 to Sec 300 - exceeding right).

C) 1, 3, 2, 4

D) 2, 1, 4, 3

73 / 100

Communication made 'without prejudice' are protected

A) under section 24 of Evidence Act

B) under section 23 of Evidence Act

C) under section 22 of Evidence Act

D) under section 21 of Evidence Act.

74 / 100

According to Section 242, when shall a Magistrate frame a formal charge?

A) At the very end of the trial

B) If the accused refuses to speak

C) If there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence

D) Upon receiving the FIR

75 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which:

A) Is guaranteed by a bank

B) Would not be specifically enforced

C) Would be specifically enforced

D) Involves immovable property

76 / 100

In a suit for the partition of property or separate possession of a share, if the partition cannot be conveniently made without further inquiry, the Court passes a:

A) Summary judgment

B) Consent order

C) Final decree

D) Preliminary decree

77 / 100

A servant retained money collected for his master, claiming it for unpaid wages. He commits:

A) No offence.

B) Theft.

C) Criminal misappropriation.

D) Criminal breach of trust.

78 / 100

According to Section 3, does a court have the power to dismiss a time-barred suit on its own motion (suo motu)?

A) Yes, "although limitation has not been set up as a defence"

B) Only if the plaintiff admits it

C) No, defendant must plead

D) Only in criminal cases

79 / 100

Admissions made by a party are evidence against

A) privies in estate

B) all the above.

C) privies in law

D) privies in blood

80 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 231) If a charge is altered, who has the right to recall and examine witnesses regarding the alteration?

A) Only the prosecutor

B) Both the prosecutor and the accused

C) Only the accused

D) Neither, witnesses cannot be recalled

81 / 100

After framing a charge under Section 242, what must the Magistrate ask the accused?

A) Whether he admits that he has committed the offence

B) How much fine he can pay

C) Whether he wants a lawyer

D) Who his accomplices are

82 / 100

Can the Court frame an issue based on the contents of documents produced by either party, even if that specific fact wasn't strictly in the pleadings?

A) Yes, under Order XIV, Rule 3

B) No, documentary evidence is secondary

C) Yes, but only with the consent of the defendant

D) No, issues must strictly be from pleadings only

83 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 225) A is charged with murdering Haidar Baksh on Jan 20. The charge mistakenly says Khoda Baksh on Jan 21. A was never charged with any other murder and heard the inquiry exclusively about Haidar Baksh. The Court may infer the error is:

A) Immaterial, as A was not misled

B) A reason to hang A

C) Proof of police corruption

D) Material and grounds for dismissal

84 / 100

Under Section 244(1), if the accused does NOT admit the charge, what is the Magistrate's next step?

A) Dismiss the case

B) Send the accused to jail indefinitely

C) Order a police investigation

D) Proceed to hear the complainant and take prosecution evidence

85 / 100

Admissions by agents are

A) never admissible in criminal proceedings

B) both (b) & (c).

C) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances

D) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions

86 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 227) Every alteration or addition to a charge shall be:

A) Kept secret until the final day

B) Published in a legal journal

C) Sent to the President

D) Read and explained to the accused

87 / 100

Before summoning any witness on application under Section 244, the Magistrate may require:

A) Reasonable expenses incurred in attending to be deposited in Court

B) Police verification of the witness

C) The witness's written consent

D) A written apology from the accused

88 / 100

Propositions under Evidence Act are Statement is a genus, admission is a species & confession is a sub species.

A) I & II are correct & III is incorrect

B) I is correct, II & III are incorrect

C) III is correct & I & II are incorrect.

D) II & III are correct & I is incorrect

89 / 100

If the plaintiff's suit is dismissed for default of appearance under Order IX, Rule 8, the plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit on the same cause of action. However, the plaintiff can:

A) Change the name of the defendant and file again

B) File a direct appeal to the Supreme Court

C) File a criminal case

D) Apply to the same court for an order to set the dismissal aside

90 / 100

A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under

A) section 25 of Evidence Act

B) section 24 of Evidence Act

C) section 26 of Evidence Act

D) section 27 of Evidence Act.

91 / 100

Bangladesh Courts have jurisdiction over: 1. Crime by Bangladeshi abroad. 2. Crime by foreigner in BD. 3. Crime on BD ship.

A) 1 and 3

B) 1 and 2

C) 1, 2 and 3.

D) 1 alone

92 / 100

"Discovery by interrogatories" primarily allows a party to:

A) Call the opponent's lawyer as a witness

B) Search the opponent's house

C) Ask the opponent written questions relevant to the suit which must be answered on oath

D) Ask the opponent to produce physical evidence

93 / 100

What is an advocate prohibited from doing during a period of suspension?

A) Practicing law in any court

B) Voting in elections

C) Enjoying Bar Council privileges

D) All of the above

94 / 100

X hits Z, Z becomes unconscious. Believing Z dead, X throws him in a pond to hide evidence. Z drowns. X is guilty of:

A) No offence.

B) Attempt to murder.

C) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

D) Murder (The series of acts are treated as one transaction intending to cause death).

95 / 100

Can an injunction be granted to stay proceedings in any criminal matter?

A) No

B) Yes, always

C) Only if the magistrate agrees

D) Only if the charge is minor

96 / 100

(Detailed check on Sec 239) Can persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction be tried together?

A) No

B) Only if they share the same lawyer

C) Only if they are twins

D) Yes

97 / 100

Which Article of the Bar Council Order mentions the qualifications to be an advocate?

A) Article 27

B) Article 33

C) Article 21

D) Article 31

98 / 100

What powers under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 can the Tribunal exercise during inquiries?

A) Issuing summons

B) Receiving evidence & calling documents

C) Administering oaths

D) All of the above

99 / 100

Admissions

A) are conclusive proof of the matter and also operate as estoppel

B) are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel

C) are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

D) both (a) & (c) are correct.

100 / 100

Assertion: There is no liability for attempting impossible theft. Reason: No liability under Sec 511 for attempting what is not an offence if completed.

A) A is true, R is false.

B) Both true, no explanation.

C) A is false (Impossible attempt IS punishable), but R is true (Attempting an act that isn't legally a crime is not punishable).

D) Both true.

The average score is 0%

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Curated & Verified by Legal Expert

Advocate MD. Rashedujjaman Rashed

LL.B (Hons), LL.M (Daffodil International University). Advocate, Bangladesh Bar Council & Nilphamari District Bar Association. Founder & Editor-in-Chief, Ain Prokash. Dedicated to legal education and exam excellence in Bangladesh.

5 days ago

1 minute read

⚖️ Bangladesh Bar Council Advocate Enrollment Full Model Test – 39

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