Bar Council Full Model Test 40 English

Bar Council Full Model Test 40 (English)

Bangladesh Bar Council Preliminary Full Model Test 40

Total Questions: 100 | Full Marks: 100 | Time: 60 Minutes | Negative Marking: -0.25

Subject-wise Marks Distribution: CPC 20, SR Act 10, CrPC 20, Penal Code 20, Evidence Act 15, Limitation Act 10, Legal Ethics & Bar Council Rules 5.

1 / 100

If a judgment-debtor dies before the decree has been fully executed, against whom can the decree be executed?

A) It cannot be executed at all

B) The local police station

C) The legal representative of the deceased judgment-debtor

D) The Government

2 / 100

If a property is sold in an execution auction, who has the right to apply under Order XXI, Rule 89 to set aside the sale by depositing the decree amount plus 5% penalty?

A) Only the judge

B) Only the decree-holder

C) Any person claiming an interest in the property sold at the time of the sale or at the time of making the application, or acting for or in the interest of such person

D) Only the auction purchaser

3 / 100

X turned his wife out and refused to return her ornaments, money, and clothes (stridhan) despite demands. X committed:

A) Criminal breach of trust

B) Cajolery

C) Criminal intimidation

D) Cheating

4 / 100

A compromise decree passed under Order XXIII, Rule 3, which is based on a lawful agreement between the parties, is generally:

A) Not appealable (barred by Section 96(3))

B) Valid only for 6 months

C) Automatically reviewed after a year

D) Open to appeal by either party

5 / 100

Order XXI, Rule 58 deals with the adjudication of claims or objections regarding attached property. The decision made by the executing court under this rule has the same force as:

A) A police report

B) A mere administrative opinion

C) A decree, and is subject to appeal

D) An interlocutory order

6 / 100

Under Order XXI, Rule 90, to set aside an execution sale on the ground of material irregularity or fraud, the applicant must also prove that:

A) They sustained substantial injury by reason of such irregularity or fraud

B) They did not know about the auction

C) The auction took place in the afternoon

D) The purchaser is a foreigner

7 / 100

What is the maximum compensation a 1st or 2nd class Magistrate can direct a complainant to pay under Section 250?

A) 25,000 Taka

B) 1,00,000 Taka

C) 10,000 Taka

D) 50,000 Taka

8 / 100

A retracted confession

A) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any circumstances

B) both (a) & (c) are incorrect.

C) can not be made solely the basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated

D) can be made solely the basis of conviction

9 / 100

What happens to the accused when proceedings are stopped under Section 249?

A) He is released

B) He is convicted

C) He is kept in prison

D) He is fined

10 / 100

Section 27 of Evidence Act applies

A) when the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody

B) when the person is in police custody but not an accused

C) when the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody

D) when the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.

11 / 100

A confession made while in police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act

A) if made in the presence of a captain of a vessel

B) all the above.

C) if made in the presence of a doctor

D) if made in the presence of a a Magistrate

12 / 100

If the Attorney General is absent, who presides over a Bar Council meeting?

A) Vice-Chairman

B) Senior member present

C) Chairman of Tribunal

D) Law Secretary

13 / 100

According to Section 248, when can a Magistrate permit a complainant to withdraw his complaint?

A) Only after the verdict is announced

B) Never

C) Only before the charge is framed

D) At any time before a final order is passed

14 / 100

Above what amount can a complainant appeal a compensation order made by a 1st class Magistrate under Section 250?

A) 10,000 Taka

B) 2,000 Taka

C) 1,000 Taka

D) 5,000 Taka

15 / 100

If a compensation order is NOT subject to appeal, when can it be paid to the accused?

A) After one year

B) Before the expiration of one month from the date of the order

C) Not before the expiration of one month from the date of the order

D) Immediately

16 / 100

In a suit for the foreclosure of a mortgage under Order XXXIV, what type of decree is passed first?

A) Preliminary decree

B) Ex parte decree

C) Final decree

D) Consent decree

17 / 100

X handed his valid train ticket to Y to check. Y pretended to return it but substituted it with his own invalid ticket, keeping X's. Y committed:

A) Cheating

B) Criminal Misappropriation

C) Theft

D) Extortion

18 / 100

Attachment before judgment (Order XXXVIII, Rule 5) is ordered when the court is satisfied that the defendant is about to dispose of their property with the intent to:

A) Pay off their lawful debts

B) Obstruct or delay the execution of any decree that may be passed against them

C) Give it to a charity

D) Upgrade their business

19 / 100

Confession of a co-accused, not required to be on oath and cannot be tested by cross-examination I. is no evidence within the meaning of section 3 of Evidence Act and cannot be the foundation of a conviction II. the only limited use which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists III. it is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker even than the evidence of an approver. In the aforesaid propositions

A) only I & II are correct

B) only I & III are correct

C) only II & III are correct.

D) all I, II & III are correct

20 / 100

When an executing court issues a "show-cause notice" before arresting a judgment-debtor for a money decree, what must the decree-holder ultimately prove to send them to civil prison?

A) That the debtor is generally a bad person

B) Simply that the money is unpaid

C) That the debtor has the means to pay but is willfully refusing or delaying, or has committed acts of bad faith (like hiding assets)

D) That the debtor lives in a big house

21 / 100

Who appoints the Secretary of the Bangladesh Bar Council?

A) Chief Justice

B) Chairman of Bar Council

C) Executive Committee

D) Government of Bangladesh

22 / 100

Section 24 applies to a suit for compensation for an act which does not give rise to a cause of action unless:

A) The defendant admits it

B) A crime is committed

C) Some specific injury actually results therefrom

D) Blood is shed

23 / 100

If an auction purchaser is obstructed from taking physical possession of the property by a third party claiming independent right/title, the purchaser can complain to the court under:

A) Order XXI, Rule 58

B) Order XXI, Rule 89

C) Order XXI, Rule 97

D) Order XXI, Rule 32

24 / 100

A contracts to sell the goodwill of a business to B and agrees not to carry it on in Chittagong. A carries it on. B may obtain:

A) An injunction restraining A from carrying on the business in Chittagong

B) A's arrest

C) A full refund plus the business

D) Specific performance of customer transfer

25 / 100

Under Section 57, if a contract comprises an affirmative agreement coupled with a negative agreement, the inability to compel specific performance of the affirmative agreement:

A) Precludes granting an injunction

B) Turns the contract into a lease

C) Voids the entire contract

D) Shall not preclude it from granting an injunction to perform the negative agreement

26 / 100

To claim the benefit of provocation to reduce liability for murder, the offender must prove: 1. Provocation was sufficient in ordinary course to cause loss of self-control. 2. Provocation was grave and sudden. 3. Provocation stirred a desire for revenge. 4. Sufficient time did not elapse to cool down.

A) 2 and 3

B) 1, 3 and 4

C) 1, 2 and 4 (Desire for revenge negates the defence of sudden provocation).

D) 1 alone

27 / 100

To execute a decree against a firm, the property of the partnership can be attached. Can the personal property of an individual partner be attached?

A) Only if the partner is the majority shareholder

B) No, never

C) Yes, automatically in all cases

D) Yes, if they were individually served with summons as a partner and admitted or were adjudged to be a partner

28 / 100

Interpleader suits (Order XXXV) are primarily filed to:

A) Resolve boundary disputes between neighbors

B) Divide family property

C) Protect an impartial stakeholder who holds property/money claimed by two or more rival parties

D) Claim damages for defamation

29 / 100

Which of the following statements are correct in relation to criminal conspiracy? 1. Agreement to do an unlawful act by unlawful means makes them guilty. 2. Several persons agreed to commit an offence but nothing was done in pursuance. 3. Agreement to do a lawful act by lawful means but an overt act is done by one. 4. Conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with fine alone entails no liability.

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1, 3 and 4

C) 1, 2 and 4 (Assuming 4 refers to specific procedural bars in some jurisdictions, though conspiracy to commit ANY offence is generally punishable under 120B. The provided key says 'c' meaning 1, 2, and 4 are correct).

D) 2, 3 and 4

30 / 100

Under Order XXXIII (Suits by Indigent Persons), if the application to sue as a pauper is rejected, the applicant:

A) Must serve a term in civil prison

B) Is fined heavily

C) Can never sue the defendant again

D) Is granted time by the court to pay the requisite court fees and continue the suit

31 / 100

Can an advocate present false evidence on behalf of their client?

A) Yes, for a high fee

B) Only in civil cases

C) Yes

D) No, it's professional misconduct

32 / 100

Which of the following is associated with Common Intention?

A) Pre-meditated concert

B) Similar intention

C) Same intention

D) Unanimous decision in a meeting

33 / 100

If an accusation is found false and frivolous/vexatious, and the complainant is present, the Magistrate shall forthwith call upon him to:

A) Pay a fine to the state

B) Show cause why he should not pay compensation to the accused

C) Go to jail

D) Apologize publicly

34 / 100

Which of the following is an essential ingredient of sedition?

A) Dishonest intention

B) Malafide intention

C) Words must cause actual public disorder

D) Words spoken must be capable of exciting disaffection towards the Government.

35 / 100

An injunction cannot be granted where the applicant has no:

A) Personal interest in the matter

B) Lawyer

C) Evidence

D) Financial means

36 / 100

A contracts to sing for 12 months at B's theatre and not sing elsewhere. B cannot obtain specific performance to make A sing, but B is entitled to:

A) Force A to pay back all previous earnings

B) Have A deported

C) Imprison A

D) An injunction restraining A from singing at any other place of public entertainment

37 / 100

Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused

A) if they are tried for different offences and not jointly.

B) if they are tried jointly for the same offences

C) if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly

D) if they are tried jointly for different offences

38 / 100

A told C he was going to shoot B. A went to B's street with a loaded gun, shouting for B to come out. B didn't, and A left.

A) A is liable because his intent was clear.

B) A is not liable for attempt to murder because he had not committed the penultimate act (it remained at preparation stage).

C) A is liable because he told C.

D) A is liable for attempt to murder because he carried a loaded gun.

39 / 100

If the plaintiff realizes their suit must fail due to a formal defect, they may apply to withdraw the suit with liberty to file a fresh suit. Which provision allows this?

A) Order XXIII, Rule 1(3)

B) Order II, Rule 2

C) Order VII, Rule 11

D) Order IX, Rule 4

40 / 100

B contracts to serve A faithfully as a clerk for 12 months. A is not entitled to a decree for specific performance, but he is entitled to:

A) Double damages from the rival house

B) B's properties

C) An injunction restraining B from serving a rival house as clerk

D) Whip B

41 / 100

Does paying compensation under Section 250 exempt the complainant from civil or criminal liability?

A) Yes, from civil liability only

B) No, he is not exempted

C) Yes, from criminal liability only

D) Yes, fully

42 / 100

Facts discovered in consequences of a joint information

A) are not admissible and can not be used against any of the accused person

B) are admissible and can be used against any one of the accused person

C) both (a) & (c) are correct.

D) are admissible and can be used against all the accused persons

43 / 100

Under Section 249, who can stop proceedings without pronouncing any judgment in a case instituted otherwise than upon complaint?

A) A police sub-inspector

B) The complainant

C) A Magistrate of the third class independently

D) A Metropolitan Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class

44 / 100

To obtain a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX, Rule 1, a plaintiff must typically establish three elements: Prima facie case, balance of convenience, and:

A) Proof of defendant's guilt

B) Irreparable loss/injury if the injunction is not granted

C) Wealth of the defendant

D) Unclean hands of the plaintiff

45 / 100

If the false informant is NOT present, how does the Magistrate call upon him to show cause under Section 250?

A) By freezing his bank account

B) By arresting his family

C) By directing the issue of a summons to him

D) By publishing a notice in the newspaper

46 / 100

If a document is fraudulently concealed, limitation runs from when the person first had the means of:

A) Copying it

B) Producing it or compelling its production

C) Destroying it

D) Reading it

47 / 100

In a summary suit under Order XXXVII, if the defendant fails to apply for leave to defend within the stipulated time, what is the consequence?

A) The suit is transferred to a regular court

B) The court issues a fresh summons

C) The allegations in the plaint are deemed admitted, and the plaintiff is entitled to a decree immediately

D) The defendant is arrested

48 / 100

If a civil suit is subsequently filed relating to the same matter, the compensation paid under Section 250 shall be:

A) Refunded to the complainant

B) Doubled

C) Ignored

D) Taken into account in awarding compensation in the civil suit

49 / 100

What is the maximum compensation a Magistrate of the third class can direct under Section 250?

A) 20,000 Taka

B) 10,000 Taka

C) 25,000 Taka

D) 5,000 Taka

50 / 100

Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused

A) under section 29 of Evidence Act

B) under section 30 of Evidence Act

C) under section 28 of Evidence Act

D) under section 31 of Evidence Act.

51 / 100

A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible as per

A) section 30 of Evidence Act.

B) section 27 of Evidence Act

C) section 25 of Evidence Act

D) section 26 of Evidence Act

52 / 100

A seeks an injunction to restrain partner B from receiving debts. A had improperly possessed the books and refused B access. The Court will:

A) Refuse the injunction

B) Dissolve the partnership

C) Arrest B

D) Grant the injunction

53 / 100

If a compensation order is subject to appeal, the compensation shall NOT be paid to the accused before:

A) 6 months

B) The period allowed for presentation of the appeal has elapsed or the appeal is decided

C) The accused files a civil suit

D) The High Court gives permission

54 / 100

A surgeon operates in good faith on X, knowing X will likely die without a miracle. X dies. A is:

A) Guilty of murder (direct consequence).

B) Not guilty because he acted in good faith despite knowing X might die (Exception for benefit).

C) Subjective.

D) Guilty of murder.

55 / 100

X instigates Y to murder Z. Y stabs Z, but Z survives. X is guilty of:

A) Abetment of attempt to murder

B) Abetment of murder

C) Murder

D) Attempt to murder

56 / 100

Which condition constitutes Sedition?

A) Audio cassette exciting caste feelings.

B) Article expressing disapprobation of Govt measures to excite dissatisfaction towards policy.

C) Film depicting corruption to excite dissatisfaction towards politicians.

D) A speech by a politician exciting disaffection towards the Govt and intending to change it by violent means.

57 / 100

Under section 27 of Evidence Act, 'discovery of fact' includes

A) the place from where it is produced

B) neither (a) nor (b).

C) the object found

D) both (a) & (b)

58 / 100

Under section 27 of Evidence Act

A) both are admissible depending on the facts & circumstances of the case

B) only (a) & not (b).

C) the whole statement is admissible

D) only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovery is admissible

59 / 100

A section 27 control

A) section 26 of Evidence Act

B) section 24 of Evidence Act

C) all the above.

D) section 25 of Evidence Act

60 / 100

Which statement is NOT correct in the case of the defence of intoxication?

A) Particular intention and not knowledge is attributed to the accused who acted under voluntary intoxication. (The key says (d) is incorrect).

B) It is available in both voluntary and involuntary intoxication (Incorrect, it is generally only available for involuntary).

C) Intoxication is a defence when incapable of knowing the act is wrong/contrary to law.

D) Intoxication is a defence when incapable of knowing the nature of the act.

61 / 100

A agreed with B to obtain undue favour from a Govt member for 1 lakh Taka. A paid B, who paid C (the member). C later refused to do the favour.

A) A has no ground against C.

B) B alone is responsible.

C) Both B and C are liable as there was abetment by conspiracy.

D) C alone is responsible.

62 / 100

Match List I with List II: A. Dishonestly taking property, B. Inducing delivery by fear, C. Entrustment, D. Appropriating property obtained innocently.

A) 4, 1, 2, 3

B) A-4 (Theft), B-2 (Extortion), C-1 (Criminal breach of trust), D-3 (Misappropriation).

C) 3, 2, 1, 4

D) 3, 1, 2, 4

63 / 100

If a Magistrate of the second class wishes to stop proceedings under Section 249, whose previous sanction is required?

A) The Police Commissioner

B) The High Court Division

C) The District Magistrate

D) The Chief Judicial Magistrate

64 / 100

Can a person be a "trustee" if they are a wrong-doer in possession without title?

A) No (Sec 2(11))

B) Yes

C) Yes, if they improve the property

D) Yes, after 12 years

65 / 100

Necessity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is applicable, when the maker of a statement

A) is a person who can be found but his attendance can not be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses

B) is a person who can not be found

C) all the above.

D) is dead or has become incapable or giving evidence

66 / 100

In default of payment of compensation under Section 250, what is the maximum period of simple imprisonment the person shall suffer?

A) 30 days

B) 3 months

C) 15 days

D) 60 days

67 / 100

Consider the culpable states of mind in Section 300: 1. Intention to cause death. 2. Knowledge that act is imminently dangerous. 3. Intention to cause bodily injury likely to cause death of the person injured. 4. Intention of causing bodily injury sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death. Correct sequence in the provision:

A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (Clause 1, Clause 2, Clause 3, Clause 4).

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

C) 1, 4, 3, 2

D) 2, 3, 4, 1

68 / 100

A condition for granting an injunction to perform a negative agreement under Section 57 is that the applicant:

A) Has not failed to perform the contract so far as it is binding on him

B) Must be wealthy

C) Must file the suit within 7 days

D) Must agree to mediation

69 / 100

Who is eligible to vote in the Bar Council elections?

A) Enrolled advocates on the voter list

B) All citizens

C) Only Supreme Court advocates

D) All law students

70 / 100

Under Section 247, in a case instituted upon complaint, what happens if the complainant does not appear on the appointed day?

A) The case is transferred to the High Court

B) The Magistrate must issue a warrant for the complainant

C) The Magistrate shall acquit the accused

D) The Magistrate shall convict the accused

71 / 100

Under Section 247, a Magistrate may dispense with the personal attendance of an absent complainant and proceed if the complainant is a:

A) Woman

B) Minor

C) Public servant

D) Foreign national

72 / 100

A sells an article falsely stating it has sovereign medicinal qualities. B pirates the designation. A sues for an injunction. Will A get it?

A) Yes, if A pays a fine

B) Yes, but only for damages

C) No, A's use of his description is not an honest one

D) Yes, B is pirating

73 / 100

Under Section 245(2), if the Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall:

A) Confiscate all his property

B) Hand him over to the public

C) Transfer him to a Civil Court

D) Pass sentence upon him according to law

74 / 100

Does the Limitation Act 1908 extend to territories outside Bangladesh?

A) Yes, internationally

B) Yes, to Pakistan

C) No, it extends to the whole of Bangladesh

D) Yes, to India

75 / 100

If the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree is 5 days, what happens to those 5 days when computing the limitation period for an appeal?

A) They are ignored

B) The appellant must pay a fee for them

C) They are excluded from the computation (Sec 12(2))

D) They are added as a penalty

76 / 100

What is the legal consequence if a suit fully abates due to the non-substitution of the legal representative of a deceased plaintiff?

A) The government takes over the suit

B) The legal heirs can file a fresh suit unconditionally

C) No fresh suit shall be brought on the same cause of action

D) The defendant is ordered to pay costs

77 / 100

Section 250 deals with compensation for accusations that are false and:

A) Either frivolous or vexatious

B) Politically motivated

C) Violent

D) Anonymous

78 / 100

What kind of body is the Bar Council regarding acquiring and transferring property?

A) Cooperative Society

B) Partnership firm

C) Body Corporate having perpetual succession

D) Trust

79 / 100

Does the term "easement" in Section 2(5) include a right arising from a contract?

A) No, "a right not arising from contract"

B) Yes, if oral

C) Yes

D) Yes, if registered

80 / 100

An unqualified person performed an operation with the patient's consent. The patient died.

A) He had earlier success.

B) Volenti non fit injuria is a complete defence.

C) As he is unskilled, the plea of consent and good faith will not be available (it lacks 'due care and attention').

D) He performed it in good faith for the patient's benefit.

81 / 100

What is the legal effect of a complaint being withdrawn under Section 248?

A) The accused is acquitted

B) The case is transferred

C) A temporary stay of proceedings

D) The accused is discharged

82 / 100

A contracts that for 1000 Taka paid by B, he will not set up a business. B fails to pay. Can A be restrained from carrying on the business?

A) Yes, if the court orders

B) Yes, the negative agreement stands

C) Yes, if B pays within 1 year

D) No, A cannot be restrained because B failed to perform

83 / 100

Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible

A) must relate to the cause of his own death

B) may relate to the cause of someone else' death.

C) may relate to the cause of his own death or someone else' death

D) both (b) & (c) are correct.

84 / 100

Are the rules of Section 6 (Legal disability) available for an application for execution of a decree?

A) Yes

B) Only for money decrees

C) No

D) Only for eviction decrees

85 / 100

Order XXVI, Rule 9 allows the court to appoint a commissioner for a local investigation. The report submitted by this commissioner is:

A) Discarded if any party objects

B) Treated as the final judgment

C) Considered as evidence in the suit and forms part of the record

D) Sent to the local police

86 / 100

Match List I with List II: A. Common intention, B. Good faith, C. Dishonest intention, D. Common object.

A) 1, 3, 4, 2

B) A-2 (Joint liability), B-4 (Mistake of fact), C-3 (Theft), D-1 (Constructive liability).

C) 2, 3, 4, 1

D) 1, 4, 3, 2

87 / 100

A person who was not expected to be in office created a belief that he was in office and obtained gratification. He committed:

A) Cheating (by personation)

B) Bribery

C) None of the above

D) Misappropriation

88 / 100

A contracts to sell B the goodwill of a business. A then sets up a similar business close by and solicits old customers. B may obtain an injunction because A's act is contrary to his:

A) Moral conscience

B) Explicit written terms

C) Statutory obligations

D) Implied contract

89 / 100

When a minor plaintiff sues through a "next friend", and the suit is compromised, the next friend must obtain:

A) The express leave of the Court, recorded in the proceedings

B) The permission of the police

C) The consent of the defendant's lawyer

D) The minor's written consent

90 / 100

If a plaintiff prosecutes another civil proceeding in bad faith in a wrong court, will that time be excluded under Sec 14?

A) No, it must be prosecuted in "good faith"

B) The court will halve the time

C) Yes, if he had a lawyer

D) Yes

91 / 100

Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Abettor may be liable for a different offence than the principal. 2. Abettor is liable even if the principal is innocent. 3. Abettor's liability is dependent on the liability of the principal. 4. Abettor must have the same guilty intention or knowledge as the principal.

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 1, 3 and 4

C) 1 and 2 (The key says (d) 2,3,4 but 3 and 4 are legally incorrect principles of abetment. Abettor's liability is NOT dependent on the principal, nor does he need the same intent. The correct legal principles are 1 and 2. Assuming a typo in the source key, but adhering to the format).

D) 1, 2 and 3

92 / 100

Section 27 applies to

A) all the above.

B) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the same

C) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources

D) discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information given by the accused

93 / 100

Do the rules of Section 6 (Legal disability) apply to a suit to enforce rights of pre-emption?

A) Yes, if minor

B) No (Sec 8)

C) Yes, if insane

D) Yes

94 / 100

A suit shall abate if a sole plaintiff dies, the right to sue survives, but no application is made to substitute the legal heirs within:

A) 120 days

B) 30 days

C) 60 days

D) 90 days

95 / 100

Under Section 250(5), in addition to compensation, a Magistrate can order the person to suffer imprisonment up to 6 months OR pay a fine not exceeding:

A) One lac taka

B) Five lac taka

C) 50,000 Taka

D) 25,000 Taka

96 / 100

Necessity rule' as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in

A) section 61 of Evidence Act.

B) section 31 of Evidence Act

C) section 32 of Evidence Act

D) section 60 of Evidence Act

97 / 100

X and Y, swimming after a shipwreck, grab a plank unable to support both. X pushes Y off, and Y drowns. X has committed:

A) Murder (The key says (d) No offence, likely referring to the controversial 'necessity' defence in extreme survival, though legally, killing an innocent to save oneself is generally murder. Transcribing as per key).

B) Death by negligence

C) Culpable homicide

D) Murder

98 / 100

What happens when a minor plaintiff attains majority during the pendency of a suit?

A) They must elect whether to proceed with the suit or abandon it

B) The next friend is sent to jail

C) The court issues a new summons to the defendant

D) The suit is automatically dismissed

99 / 100

To start a fresh period, must the payment of a debt (Sec 20) be made by the debtor himself?

A) Only by a bank

B) No, anyone can pay

C) No, it can be made by the person liable or by his duly authorized agent

D) Yes, exclusively

100 / 100

The right of private defence extends to causing death: Item A (Body): 1. Outrage modesty, 2. Kill children elsewhere, 3. Grievous hurt. Item B (Property): 1. House breaking by day, 2. Thief causing fear of loss, 3. Mischief causing apprehension of grievous hurt.

A) 2 and 3

B) A-3 (Grievous hurt) & B-3 (Mischief causing apprehension of grievous hurt). (Key says (c) 3 alone of both items).

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 3

The average score is 0%

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Bar Council Full Model Test 40 English | 100 Marks 60 Min