The Evidence Act, 1872 Model Test 17 (English)

Time Allowed30 Minutes

Total Questions50 MCQs

Total Marks50 Marks

Negative Marking-0.25 Marks

Qualifying Mark50% Pass

📜 Candidate Examination Guidelines (Click to expand)

The real-time countdown timer starts as soon as you begin the test.
Carefully select one correct option for each multiple-choice question.
A negative penalty of 0.25 marks is deducted for each incorrect answer.
Click Submit / Finish upon completion to review your immediate OMR scorecard and statutory explanations.

Time limit: 30 minutes. Complete the test within time.

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Evidence Act Model Test 17 (English)

The Evidence Act, 1872

Questions: 50
Full Marks: 50
Time: 30 Minutes

1 / 50

After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party has a:

A) has no right to further cross examine the witness

B) right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new matter is introduced in the re-examination

C) either (a) or (b)

D) right to further cross-examine the witness afresh in general

2 / 50

Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused:

A) if they are tried jointly for the same offences

B) if they are tried jointly for different offences

C) if they are tried for different offences and not jointly

D) if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly

3 / 50

Admissibility of electronic record has been prescribed under:

A) section 66 of Evidence Act

B) section 65 of Evidence Act

C) section 65B of Evidence Act

D) section 65A of Evidence Act

4 / 50

Mode of proof of a custom is contained in:

A) section 32(7) of Evidence Act

B) section 48 of Evidence Act

C) all the above

D) section 32(4) of Evidence Act

5 / 50

The principle that possession is prima facie proof of ownership is contained in:

A) section 112 of Evidence Act

B) section 109 of Evidence Act

C) section 110 of Evidence Act

D) section 111 of Evidence Act

6 / 50

Previous conviction of a person is relevant under:

A) explanation II to section 14 of Evidence Act

B) explanation IV to section 14 of Evidence Act

C) explanation III to section 14 of Evidence Act

D) explanation I to section 14 of Evidence Act

7 / 50

Motives, preparation and conduct are relevant:

A) under section 9 of Evidence Act

B) under section 7 of Evidence Act

C) under section 6 of Evidence Act

D) under section 8 of Evidence Act

8 / 50

Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible:

A) may relate to the cause of his own death or someone else's death

B) may relate to the cause of someone else's death

C) must relate to the cause of his own death

D) both (b) & (c) are correct

9 / 50

The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant:

A) under section 8 of Evidence Act

B) under section 6 of Evidence Act

C) under section 5 of Evidence Act

D) under section 7 of Evidence Act

10 / 50

Section 105 of Evidence Act applies to:

A) both (a) & (b)

B) criminal trials

C) neither (a) nor (b)

D) civil trials

11 / 50

Husband & wife both are competent witness for & against each other:

A) in civil proceedings

B) neither in civil nor in criminal proceedings

C) in criminal proceedings

D) in both civil & criminal proceedings

12 / 50

An accomplice is:

A) not a competent witness against an accused

B) a competent witness against an accused

C) both (a) or (c)

D) either (a) or (c)

13 / 50

The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in:

A) section 65 of Evidence Act

B) section 64 of Evidence Act

C) section 63 of Evidence Act

D) section 66 of Evidence Act

14 / 50

Section 27 applies to:

A) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the same

B) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources

C) discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information given by the accused

D) all the above

15 / 50

Section 112 of Evidence Act applies when there is a dispute regarding:

A) both (a) & (b)

B) either (a) or (b)

C) maternity of a child

D) paternity of a child

16 / 50

Section 92 of Evidence Act prohibits admission of oral evidence, in respect of a written document, for the purpose of:

A) adding to its terms

B) varying its terms

C) all the above

D) contradicting its terms

17 / 50

Under the Evidence Act, fact means:

A) both factum probandum and factum probans

B) factum probandum

C) none of the above

D) factum probans

18 / 50

Section 79 to 85 of Evidence Act contains:

A) no presumption either of fact or law

B) a rebuttable presumption of law

C) an irrefutable presumption of law

D) a presumption of fact

19 / 50

Self-regarding' statements:

A) can be self-serving statements

B) none of the above

C) can be self-harming statements

D) can be self-serving or self-harming

20 / 50

Alibi is governed by:

A) section 8 of Evidence Act

B) section 11 of Evidence Act

C) section 12 of Evidence Act

D) section 6 of Evidence Act

21 / 50

Opinion of an expert under section 45 of Evidence Act:

A) is a conclusive proof

B) is not a conclusive proof

C) either (a) or (c)

D) is supportive and corroborative in nature

22 / 50

A document required by law to be attested can be proved under section 68 of Evidence Act only:

A) by calling both the attesting witnesses

B) all of the above are correct

C) by calling none of the attesting witnesses but by calling some other person who has the knowledge of the contents

D) by calling at least one of the attesting witnesses

23 / 50

Necessity rule' or doctrine of necessity as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in:

A) section 32 of Evidence Act

B) section 31 of Evidence Act

C) section 61 of Evidence Act

D) section 60 of Evidence Act

24 / 50

Facts which need not be proved by the parties include:

A) facts which have been admitted by the parties at or before the hearing

B) both (a) & (b)

C) neither (a) nor (b)

D) facts of which judicial notice has to be taken

25 / 50

Communication in respect of the affairs of the state are privileged communication on the grounds of public policy:

A) under section 124 of Evidence Act

B) under section 123 of Evidence Act

C) under section 126 of Evidence Act

D) under section 125 of Evidence Act

26 / 50

Period of thirty years under section 90 of Evidence Act is to be reckoned from:

A) the date on which the document is filed in the court

B) the date on which the document is relied upon

C) all the above

D) the date on which the document is tendered in evidence, when its genuineness becomes a subject of proof

27 / 50

Communication made 'without prejudice' are protected:

A) under section 21 of Evidence Act

B) under section 24 of Evidence Act

C) under section 22 of Evidence Act

D) under section 23 of Evidence Act

28 / 50

Contents of a document may be proved under section 61 of Evidence Act:

A) only by primary evidence & not by secondary evidence

B) by secondary evidence

C) by primary evidence

D) either by primary or by secondary evidence

29 / 50

A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under:

A) section 26 of Evidence Act

B) section 25 of Evidence Act

C) section 27 of Evidence Act

D) section 24 of Evidence Act

30 / 50

Extrinsic evidence to show the meaning or supply the defects in an instrument, is prohibited under section 93, in respect of:

A) both (a) & (b)

B) ambiguitas patens

C) only (b) & not (a)

D) ambiguitas latens

31 / 50

Burden of proof under section 101 of Evidence Act:

A) may shift

B) goes on shifting as the trial proceeds

C) never shifts

D) both (b) & (c) are correct

32 / 50

Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be:

A) both (a) & (b)

B) direct only

C) either (a) or (b)

D) hearsay

33 / 50

Provision for hostile witness is provided:

A) under section 152 of Evidence Act

B) under section 155 of Evidence Act

C) under section 153 of Evidence Act

D) under section 154 of Evidence Act

34 / 50

Court question under section 165 of Evidence Act can be put to:

A) both (a) & (b)

B) any witness

C) any party

D) neither (a) nor (b)

35 / 50

Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in:

A) section 55 of Evidence Act

B) section 58 of Evidence Act

C) section 57 of Evidence Act

D) section 56 of Evidence Act

36 / 50

Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant:

A) under section 10 of Evidence Act

B) under section 8 of Evidence Act

C) under section 12 of Evidence Act

D) under section 6 of Evidence Act

37 / 50

Bangladeshn Evidence Act was drafted by:

A) Sir Henry Summer Maine

B) Huxley

C) Lord Macaulay

D) Sir James F. Stephen

38 / 50

Section 108 of Evidence Act relates to:

A) presumption of death

B) presumption of legitimacy

C) presumption of life

D) presumption of relationship

39 / 50

Documents which are not covered under section 74 of Evidence Act are called:

A) all the above

B) public documents

C) quasi-public documents

D) private documents

40 / 50

A dying declaration to be admissible:

A) may be made before a doctor or a private person

B) must be made before a Magistrate

C) must be made before the police officer

D) may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person

41 / 50

A person is competent to testify:

A) if he has (a) only and not (b)

B) if he has both (a) & (b)

C) if he is able to give rational awareness to those questions

D) if he understands the question put to him

42 / 50

Admissions:

A) are conclusive proof of the matter and also operate as estoppel

B) are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

C) both (a) & (c) are correct

D) are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel

43 / 50

The relationship in section 50 of Evidence Act means:

A) only (a) and not (b) & (c)

B) relationship by blood only

C) relationship by blood or marriage or adoption

D) relationship by blood or marriage

44 / 50

Standard of proof in:

A) either (a) or (c) are correct

B) criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases

C) civil and criminal cases is the same

D) criminal case is lower than in civil cases

45 / 50

Court can permit leading questions during examination in chief or re-examination:

A) if they refer to the matters which are undisputed

B) if they refer to the matter which are sufficiently proved

C) if they refer to either (a) or (b) or (c)

D) if they refer to the matters which are introductory

46 / 50

Under section 45 of Evidence Act the opinion of expert can be on the question of:

A) Foreign law

B) Bangladeshn law

C) both (a) & (b)

D) only (a) & not (b)

47 / 50

The doctrine of estoppel is contained in:

A) section 112 of Evidence Act

B) section 114 of Evidence Act

C) section 115 of Evidence Act

D) section 113 of Evidence Act

48 / 50

Presumptions under the law of evidence are:

A) both (a) & (b)

B) presumption of facts

C) presumptions of law

D) only (b) & not (a)

49 / 50

Admissions:

A) must be in writing

B) either oral or in writing

C) only in writing & not oral

D) must be oral

50 / 50

A disputed handwriting can be proved:

A) by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

B) by calling an expert

C) by comparison of the two-admitted & disputed handwritings

D) all the above

The average score is 0%

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The Evidence Act, 1872 Model Test 17 (English)

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